Many struggle with the idea that Yeshua (Jesus) pre-existed before taking on his incarnate form how then do you interpret the following statements made by Yeshua himself?
A) that he was sent by the Father
B) that he came down from heaven (if he didn’t exist, how did he “come down”?)
C) He claimed to have seen the Father face to face before his ascension
One of the clearest biblical affirmations of Jesus’ pre-existence is found in John 6:38, where Jesus explicitly says:
> “For I came down from heaven, not to do mine own will, but the will of him that sent me.” (John 6:38, KJV)
What about the fact that Jesus had seen the Father face prior to his ascension in Acts:
John 6:46 (KJV)
“Not that any man hath seen the Father, save he which is of God, he hath seen the Father.”
This statement clarifies that no one has seen the Father except Jesus—which strongly suggests that Jesus had direct access to the Father before his incarnation. This is not merely a vision or a prophetic experience; it implies a pre-existent relationship with God.
Similarly, Jesus says in John 1:18 (KJV):
“No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.”
Here, Jesus is not just revealing God but is described as being in the bosom of the Father—a phrase that implies an intimate, pre-existent relationship.
1. Jesus Descended from Heaven
John 3:13 (KJV)
“And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of man which is in heaven.”
John 3:31 (KJV)
“He that cometh from above is above all: he that is of the earth is earthly, and speaketh of the earth: he that cometh from heaven is above all.”
John 6:38 (KJV)
“For I came down from heaven, not to do mine own will, but the will of him that sent me.”
John 6:41-42 (KJV)
“The Jews then murmured at him, because he said, I am the bread which came down from heaven. And they said, Is not this Jesus, the son of Joseph, whose father and mother we know? How is it then that he saith, I came down from heaven?”
John 6:50-51 (KJV)
“This is the bread which cometh down from heaven, that a man may eat thereof, and not die. I am the living bread which came down from heaven: if any man eat of this bread, he shall live for ever: and the bread that I will give is my flesh, which I will give for the life of the world.”
John 6:58 (KJV)
“This is that bread which came down from heaven: not as your fathers did eat manna, and are dead: he that eateth of this bread shall live for ever.”
2. The “Second Man” is from Heaven
1 Corinthians 15:47 (KJV)
“The first man is of the earth, earthy: the second man is the Lord from heaven.”
3. Jesus Voluntarily Took on Flesh
Philippians 2:5-7 (KJV)
“Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus: Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God: But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men.”
This passage suggests that before Jesus was born in human form, he already existed in a divine state. If he merely came into existence at birth, how could he have “taken upon himself” a form he did not previously have?
4. He First Descended, Then Ascended
Ephesians 4:9-10 (KJV)
“Now that he ascended, what is it but that he also descended first into the lower parts of the earth? He that descended is the same also that ascended up far above all heavens, that he might fill all things.”
This verse suggests a pre-existent descent into the world before his mission was completed and he ascended back to the Father.
In summary:
If Jesus did not exist prior to his birth:
1. Who was the Father “sending”?
2. How did Jesus “come down from heaven” if he wasn’t already there?
3. Why does Jesus claim to have seen the Father—something no ordinary human has done?
4. Why does Paul affirm that Jesus existed in the “form of God” before taking human likeness?
Author: Redeemed House
